This expert FAQ — on Operation Southern Spear, boat strikes, potential use of force in Venezuela, and seizure of U.S. sanctioned vessels — has been updated. New entries include a significantly expanded discussion of proportionality in Question #10 and new Questions #19-30.
1. Is it legal to use lethal force to target suspected drug trafficking boats on the high seas or kill those on board?
No. The United States is not in an armed conflict with any cartel or criminal gang. That means the law of armed conflict (LOAC), also known as international humanitarian law (IHL), does not apply to the military operations that began on Sept. 2. Domestic criminal law and international human rights law both prohibit these kinds of lethal strikes outside of armed conflict (such killings are known as murder and extrajudicial killings, respectively). All 21 strikes against suspected drug trafficking boats, killing 83 people to date, have been unlawful.
2. What U.S. law applies to the lethal strikes against these boats and the people on board?
Normal peacetime laws apply, including federal laws prohibiting murder and conspiracy to commit murder. Under U.S. domestic criminal law, “the unlawful killing of a human being with malice aforethought” is murder, including when committed on the high seas (note: that law also applies during armed conflict). Article 118 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice also criminalizes murder, both when military personnel intend to kill and when they engage in an “act which is inherently dangerous to another and evinces a wanton disregard of human life.” The provision applies overseas, as well as during armed conflict when the death is not lawful under the law of armed conflict. These laws apply, depending on their role, to the individuals involved in ordering and carrying out the strikes.
3. What international law applies to the lethal strikes against these boats and the people on board?
International human rights law applies. U.S. strikes on suspected drug traffickers at sea are extrajudicial killings – that is, arbitrary deprivations of the right to life under international human rights law (IHRL), an obligation that the United States acknowledges applies extraterritorially. A killing is arbitrary when it is not conducted “in self-defence or defence of others against the imminent threat of death or serious injury, to prevent the perpetration of a particularly serious crime involving grave threat to life, to arrest a person presenting such a danger and resisting their authority, or to prevent his or her escape, and only when less extreme means are insufficient to achieve these objectives.” None of these circumstances were present in the boat strikes, in particular because those killed posed no imminent threat and other means of stopping the boats that are commonly used may have been feasible (i.e., interdiction). Note that States violate IHRL, not individuals. Individuals involved in these IHRL violations can be punished for murder or conspiracy to commit murder (see above).
4. Is the situation a non-international armed conflict (NIAC) as claimed by the administration?
No. NIACs are armed conflicts between a State and an organized armed group. There are two requirements for the existence of a NIAC. First, the non-state group must be both armed and organized. While cartels are typically well-organized, they are not per se “armed” in the sense of the law of armed conflict. “Armed” denotes engaging in violence against the State in an organized fashion; that the group may possess weapons used for other criminal activity does not suffice. A second requirement is that the armed violence between the State and the group must be protracted and intense; sporadic violence, including death, is not intense enough. Even if the intensity criterion could be satisfied at some point by virtue of the U.S. strikes continuing (this remains a contested area of law), the fact that the U.S. strikes are not directed at an organized armed group precludes characterization as a NIAC.
5. If there were an armed conflict with these groups (there is not), would killing people on the boats be lawful?
It depends, but merely transporting drugs would not make a civilian targetable. If there was an armed conflict (there is not), an armed (fighting) wing of the cartel, should the cartel have one, could potentially meet the criteria for being considered an organized armed group. Members of it aboard the boats could be killed based on that status, although only so long as LOAC rules such as proportionality and precautions in attack are observed. The others who are merely operating the boats would have to qualify as civilians who may be targeted because they are “directly participating in hostilities” to be subject to attack. Although the threshold at which the conduct of a civilian amounts to “direct participation in hostilities” can be unclear in specific situations, merely transporting drugs would not qualify.
6. What about killing shipwrecked survivors of strikes at sea?
Killing shipwrecked survivors is clearly illegal and as unlawful as targeting those individuals with lethal force in the first place. If the United States were in an armed conflict (it is not), it would be illegal to target shipwrecked survivors at sea. The Department of Defense’s Law of War Manual (2023) uses exactly this rule as a paradigmatic example of a clearly illegal order:
18.3.2.1 Clearly Illegal Orders to Commit Law of War Violations. The requirement to refuse to comply with orders to commit law of war violations applies to orders to perform conduct that is clearly illegal or orders that the subordinate knows, in fact, are illegal. For example, orders to fire upon the shipwrecked would be clearly illegal. (emphasis added)
If an order was given to leave no survivors – known as “denial of quarter” – that would also have been a clearly unlawful order, and anyone receiving that order had a duty not to follow it.
7. Was killing the shipwrecked survivors of the Sept. 2 strike a war crime?
No, but that’s because war crimes are committed only during an armed conflict, and the United States was not (and is not today) in an armed conflict with the reportedly targeted group (Tren de Aragua). Killing the two shipwrecked survivors should be considered an extrajudicial killing under international human rights law, or murder under U.S. domestic law. An order to kill them would be unlawful whether in armed conflict or not.
8. Do military personnel have an obligation to refuse to obey clearly illegal orders or orders the personnel know are illegal?
Yes. The DoD Law of War Manual explains, “The requirement to refuse to comply with orders to commit law of war violations applies to orders to perform conduct that is clearly illegal or orders that the subordinate knows, in fact, are illegal. For example, orders to fire upon the shipwrecked would be clearly illegal” (§ 18.3.2.1). The Manual for Courts-Martial, which applies to all orders, points out that although superior orders are presumed lawful, this presumption “does not apply to a patently illegal order, such as one that directs the commission of a crime.” Importantly, the duty to refuse an unlawful order is triggered only when the order is manifestly unlawful; if military personnel refuse to obey an order they believe to be unlawful, and the order is not, they may be punished for failing to follow it under the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
9. Is the fact that a member of the military was obeying an order from a superior a defense in a criminal case against them?
In some cases, no. Under both long-standing international and U.S. military law, the fact that the accused engaged in criminal conduct pursuant to a superior’s order is not a defense if the accused “knew the orders to be unlawful or a person of ordinary sense and understanding would have known the orders to be unlawful” (Manual for Courts-Martial, rule 916(d)). In other words, the question is whether the order was clearly unlawful or the accused knew it to be so. If not, they may defend themselves against the charges by arguing that orders are presumed lawful and that they had no reason to know the order was unlawful.
10. Would it have been lawful to target the boat in the follow-on strikes to destroy any remaining drugs, even if the survivors would be killed? [Q&A #10 was updated on Dec. 13, 2025]
No. Under international human rights law, which governed the strikes, it is unlawful to knowingly cause the death of individuals, even criminals, in order to destroy criminal assets, like drugs. And, as noted, the law of armed conflict does not apply (see above).
But even if the law of armed conflict did, it would appear impossible on the facts as reported to find the second strike lawful. The deaths of the two individuals, as either civilians or shipwrecked fighters (see above), would have to be factored into a proportionality analysis to assess whether the deaths were “excessive” relative to the anticipated military advantage of destroying the drugs. In other words, enough of the remaining drugs would likely have to be recoverable by other cartel members to justify killing the two survivors – a proposition that on its face is indefensible. And this is assuming that the recovery of the drugs would qualify as “military advantage” in the first place, a highly questionable proposition (one with which we disagree on the facts and the law).
The U.S. Department of Defense seems to have taken the position that shipwrecked military personnel “generally” do not need to be considered in a proportionality assessment (DoD Law of War Manual, § 5.10.1.2). That is an interpretation with which we, and many others, including the ICRC, disagree. In their view and ours, such individuals need to be considered as part of the proportionality analysis. (See, e.g., GC II Commentary, ¶ 1403: “[I]f civilians are to be included in the proportionality assessment all the more so should the wounded, sick and shipwrecked.”)
Regardless, the DoD Law of War Manual (§ 5.10.1) emphasizes that “feasible precautions must be taken to reduce the risk of harm to military personnel and objects that are protected from being made the object of attack, such as military personnel placed hors de combat.” Thus, even by the express DoD view, if there were another feasible means of destroying or seizing the drugs without killing the survivors, the law of armed conflict rule on precautions in attack would prohibit an attack likely to kill them. (And again, all of this assumes the law of armed conflict applied, which it did not.)
Notably, the declassified 2012 Joint Chiefs of Staff’s No-Strike and the Collateral Damage Estimation Methodology states that the rule of proportionality applies not only to civilians but also to noncombatants, which includes, as a definitional matter, “the wounded, sick, and shipwrecked” (Enclosures D-1 & GL-5) (emphasis added). The 2021 Joint Staff Methodology for Combat Assessment also provides that “persons or objects that would not be lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time” must be considered in a collateral damage assessment. (Enclosure GL-5; see also Enclosure D-1 referring to them as “noncombatants”) (emphasis added).
11. Was there a duty to try to rescue the survivors of the Sept. 2 attack?
Yes, if feasible. Under longstanding international law during both peacetime and armed conflict, there is an obligation to take practicable measures to rescue individuals who have been shipwrecked. It is one reflected in both the law of the sea and the law of armed conflict. During peacetime, the duty is to proceed at all possible speed to rescue persons in distress so long as doing so does not seriously endanger the ship or crew (Law of the Sea Convention, art. 98). This was the applicable obligation because the United States was not in an armed conflict. Nevertheless, even during armed conflict, according to the Navy/Marine Corps/Coast Guard Commander’s Handbook on the Law of Naval Operations, “following each naval engagement at sea, the belligerents are obligated to take all possible measures, consistent with the security of their forces, to search for and rescue the shipwrecked” (emphasis added). We note that the Department of Defense’s Law of War Manual states, “The obligations to search for, collect, and take affirmative steps to protect the wounded, sick, and shipwrecked are subject to practical limitations” (7.4.4).
12. Has the United States violated the prohibition on the use of force found in Article 2(4) of the UN Charter by striking the boats?
No. The prohibition applies only to using force against other States. The strikes are unlawful, but not as a violation of this UN Charter (and customary law) prohibition. A use of force against Venezuela (or within its territory but without its consent), absent an armed attack or imminent threat of one against the United States, would, however, implicate this prohibition (see below).
13. Has there been an “armed attack” against the United States that would justify U.S. military force in self-defense?
No. States may only use force in self-defense in response to an imminent or ongoing “armed attack” (UN Charter, art. 51). Despite the Trump administration’s claims, and even if all of the claimed facts were true, there has been no “armed attack” (or imminent threat of armed attack) by any drug cartel or criminal gang against the United States. Trafficking drugs into a country cannot alone constitute an armed attack that would trigger the right of self-defense in response. Therefore, the United States has no claim to use force in self-defense against any of these groups.
14. Is the buildup of U.S. forces off the coast of Venezuela and threats to employ them against Venezuela lawful?
No. Shows of force, such as exercises, are legal if designed to show resolve, as in the case of demonstrating a willingness to defend against an unlawful armed attack. But Article 2(4) of the UN Charter and customary law prohibit States from even threatening to use force unlawfully if the threats are communicated to the threatened State, coercive, and capable of being carried out. Senior U.S. officials, including the President, have openly and coercively suggested the forces could be used against Venezuela, and the U.S. military is obviously capable of mounting a large-scale attack against that State. Since the United States has no legal basis for using force against Venezuela or any drug cartels operating there (see above), the build-up with the accompanying threats is unlawful.
15. Would U.S. strikes on alleged cartel boats in Venezuelan waters or cartel facilities and personnel in Venezuela be lawful?
No. Military operations in Venezuelan territory would be unlawful as a use of force against Venezuela in clear violation of the UN Charter (art. 2(4)) and customary international law. Venezuela has not engaged in any activities that would qualify as an “armed attack” against the United States, the trigger for the right to use force against another State in self-defense. Nor have any of the cartels engaged in an armed attack against the United States, which, according to some States and experts, might open the door to operations against them on the basis that Venezuela is unwilling or unable to put an end to their hostile activities emanating from its territory.
16. May groups designated as Foreign Terrorist Organizations (FTOs) be targeted?
No, not on that basis alone. An FTO designation does not authorize the use of force against the designated organization or its members. It carries non-lethal penalties, such as making members of the FTO inadmissible to enter the United States and allowing for its assets to be blocked. An FTO designation “does not require or create a ‘war’ or ‘armed conflict’ between the designee and the United States (or any state).” Nor does it trigger any wartime authorities. In short, the administration’s designation of certain cartels and criminal gangs as FTOs (or otherwise describing them as “narcoterrorists”) does not provide a legal basis for using force against them.
17. Should the President ask for authorization from Congress to take these strikes?
No, this is not a domestic law, war powers issue, because the United States is not at war. While it is true that the President is acting on claimed unilateral constitutional authority alone, no declaration of war or authorization to use military force by Congress could make these strikes lawful. That’s because, as described above, there has been no armed attack against the United States that could justify the resort to force in self-defense, and there is no armed conflict between the United States and any cartel or criminal gang. So while it is alarming that the executive branch is claiming authority to engage in a campaign of extrajudicial killings outside of armed conflict, there is no congressional action that could make those killings lawful.
18. May other States assist the U.S. military operations targeting suspected drug trafficking?
No. A State may not assist another State in violating international law. If it does, it will itself have violated international law to the extent of its assistance, so long as the conduct of the assisted State would also violate international law if carried out by the assisting State and the assisting State is aware of the circumstances in which its assistance will be used. Since the well-publicized U.S. operations violate international human rights law binding on all States, assistance, such as providing intelligence facilitating the strikes, would be unlawful. This explains why some States have shut off intelligence sharing that the United States could leverage to conduct these lethal operations.
Addendum I
Q&A Round 2 (published on Dec. 13)
19. Does the fact that the U.S. strikes occurred in international waters impact whether the situation qualifies as a non-international armed conflict?
No. As explained above, the gangs and cartels involved do not qualify as organized armed groups, so where the strikes occur is irrelevant to whether the situation qualifies as a non-international armed conflict (NIAC).
But, solely for the sake of discussion, note that there are two views on the effect of geography on classification of a situation as a NIAC. One view, a possibility raised by the ICRC (here, para. 548), is that the law of armed conflict governing NIACs applies when hostilities that have already begun “spill over” into an adjacent State’s territory that is not involved in the NIAC (e.g., also fighting the group). Beyond that spill-over area, the situation does not qualify as a NIAC, and accordingly, the law of armed conflict does not apply. On this view, a NIAC also arguably cannot be initiated based on hostilities occurring only outside the territory of any State (an idea grounded in the specific wording of Common Article 3 of the Geneva Conventions). Applied to these strikes, their location far from the United States would be a further reason that the situation is not a NIAC to which the law of armed conflict applies.
The second view, with which we agree, is that there is no geographic limitation that applies to the initiation of a NIAC, and, therefore, the LOAC governing it (see, e.g., Tallinn Manual 2.0, pages 386-87). The sole criteria are the “organization” and “intensity” requirements (Tadić, ¶ 70), which we explained above. Thus, if the gangs or cartels were organized in a manner to conduct military-like operations (they are not), and hostile exchanges between the U.S. forces and those groups were of sufficient intensity (they are not), the fact that they are taking place far from U.S. shores would not bar qualification as a NIAC.
20. Would U.S. military operations into another State trigger an international armed conflict between the United States and that State?
In most cases, yes. An international armed conflict (IAC) exists whenever there are armed hostilities between States. Unlike non-international armed conflict, there is no intensity requirement – the requirement is only that there be “hostilities” (or unopposed occupation). If the United States conducts operations targeting the armed forces of another State or its State institutions, wherever they may be, those operations would initiate an IAC between the United States and that State. Moreover, if the United States attacks other property or people on a State’s territory, the situation also would qualify as an IAC. Once an IAC is triggered, all four of the 1949 Geneva Conventions, other treaty obligations governing IACs, and the customary law of armed conflict apply.
Whether non-forcible but non-consensual military operations into another State’s territory, such as overflight by military aircraft or the entry of warships into the territorial sea (other than innocent passage), would qualify as an IAC is unsettled. By the prevailing view, it would even if it meets no armed resistance. The operations would be treated as a hostile action against the territorial State, essentially an unopposed invasion. The opposing view is that mere intrusion into the territory of another State would not amount to an IAC until there was an exchange of fire or other hostilities (such as capture of property, territory, or people).
The one possible exception involves operations targeting organized armed groups in another State’s territory that are not operating under the control of the territorial State, a topic addressed in the next question.
Our answers to this and the next question only concern the qualification of a situation as an armed conflict for the purposes of determining whether LOAC applies. Such operations would separately raise issues regarding sovereignty, intervention into the internal affairs of other States, and the prohibition on the use of force under the UN Charter and customary law (explained above).
21. Would U.S. strikes against a gang or drug cartel that took place inside another State’s territory, without its consent, trigger an international armed conflict between that State and the United States?
Unsettled. One State’s (e.g., the United States’) hostilities against a non-state actor (e.g., TdA) in another State’s territory (e.g., Venezuela) could, on one view, qualify as an international armed conflict between the two States. On this view, even if there was a NIAC between the State and a non-state actor, there would still be a separate international armed conflict triggered by military operations into the territorial State without its consent. This is the ICRC’s view and is the prevailing one.
An alternative view, held by one of us (Schmitt), is that operations into another State’s territory might not constitute hostilities against it, thereby triggering an armed conflict between the two States. The latter view has been expressed in the context of a State exercising its right of self-defense against an organized armed group responsible for an armed attack against that State when the hostilities between them qualify as a NIAC. This is the U.S. position. But, it’s not clear that the view’s proponents would extend it to a scenario such as the present one, that does not involve an organized armed group or the right of self-defense, but instead just killing citizens and residents of the territorial State who are involved in transnational crime. (Schmitt would not endorse that view.)
22. May the requirement of protracted violence at a high level for qualification as a non-international armed conflict be satisfied if the group’s operations do not rise to that level, but when U.S. operations are considered, they do?
Yes. The groups against which the United States is acting do not qualify as organized armed groups in the first place (see above), so the level of violence is irrelevant, because both the organization and the intensity criteria must be met independently. But in theory, if a gang or cartel qualified as an OAG because it was organized to direct military-like operations against the United States, the intensity of the U.S. strikes could be considered to assess whether the requisite intensity threshold had been reached, even if the hostilities against the United States alone did not, although some scholars believe there needs to be exchanges of fire from both sides. (Note that this raises a separate question of how to characterize the current situation, in which multiple groups allegedly transporting drugs are being attacked by the United States. On this issue, see below.)
It must be emphasized that the only basis for determining whether the NIAC intensity criterion has been reached in this case is the U.S. strikes. This is because the actions by the gangs or cartels to date (alleged drug trafficking) cannot be described as “combat,” “hostile action,” or “attacks.” Trafficking drugs is none of these.
23. Can the requirement for the existence of a non-international armed conflict that hostilities reach the necessary level of “intensity” be satisfied by aggregating the hostilities multiple groups are conducting?
Rarely, and certainly not here. Before turning to the question, we remind readers that none of the actions of the gangs or cartels targeted for killing by the United States are of the kind that factor into the intensity requirement. Intensity is about organized armed groups (which these are not) conducting hostilities against a State, not engaging in suspected criminal acts.
However, assuming that multiple gangs or cartels were directing violence against a State (they are not), and they qualified as OAGs (the vast majority do not), the intensity criterion would be applied group-by-group. Only those groups that were individually engaged in hostilities with the United States at the requisite level of intensity would be involved in a non-international armed conflict with it.
The sole exception could be if organized armed groups were engaging in operations against the United States together – that is, collaboratively in time, purpose, and operational context, as in the case of military wings of such groups coordinating and deconflicting their operations against the United States. That is not happening here.
24. Have the U.S. operations, including the boat strikes and deployment of forces into the region, amounted to an unlawful intervention into the internal affairs of Venezuela?
Yes. Under customary international law, one State may not employ coercive means against another State with respect to the other State’s domaine réservé, that is, matters over which the latter is, in principle, free to decide without being bound by international legal obligations. Here, the United States is (at least) attempting to compel Venezuela’s President to step down. In other words, it seeks “regime change.” The choice of a State’s political leaders clearly falls within its domaine réservé; indeed, it is the paradigmatic example. This is so even if Maduro’s presidency is highly contested or “illegitimate,” and rightfully so. Moreover, the show of force and threats of military action by senior administration officials self-evidently qualify as coercive. The demand for regime change has been at least implicitly communicated to Venezuela, the United States has the means to carry it out, and it has expressed a willingness to do so. (See this analysis by one of us, Schmitt, on why those actions have already amounted to an unlawful threat of force.)
25. Under international law, was the boarding and seizure of the Skipper, an oil tanker reportedly part of the “shadow fleet” transporting crude oil from Venezuela to Iran, lawful?
Maybe. Boarding was likely lawful, but seizing the vessel is more unsettled. Boarding and seizing a vessel on the high seas is an exercise of “enforcement jurisdiction.” Article 92 of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, which reflects a customary law rule binding on States like the United States that are not party to the treaty, limits enforcement jurisdiction to flag States. Ships flying another State’s flag can still be boarded under certain conditions – with the permission of the Master (Captain) or the flag State (either ad hoc or by treaty), or with UN Security Council authorization – none of which apply in this case.
A Coast Guard Maritime Special Response Team reportedly boarded the Skipper following coordination within the U.S. government through the longstanding Maritime Operational Threat Response process. At the time, the Skipper was flying the Guyanese flag, although Guyana’s maritime authority stated it was not authorized to do so, suggesting the tanker may have been effectively Stateless. The ship was also reportedly broadcasting false location data, apparently to avoid interception. The United States placed sanctions on the vessel in 2022 based on claimed involvement in generating revenue for Hezbollah and the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps. More such boardings and seizures are anticipated.
The fact that the Skipper is under unilateral U.S. sanctions provides no international-law basis for boarding it. However, if it reasonably appears a ship is flying a false flag or is otherwise “without nationality,” it is considered Stateless, which allows a warship of any country to board it to verify its status (UNCLOS, art. 110). That appears to be the situation here. But it does not answer the question of whether the ship could lawfully be seized.
Under international law, the seizure of the Skipper is less well-settled. Many States, including the United States, contend that they may enforce their domestic law on or against a stateless ship, in this case by seizing a U.S.-sanctioned vessel. As noted in the U.S. Navy’s Commander’s Handbook on the Law of Naval Operations, “Ships that are without nationality—stateless—may be boarded on the high seas and are subject to the jurisdiction of any State.” (§ 3.11.2). Here, a U.S. Magistrate had issued, on Nov. 26, a warrant to seize the Skipper “in international waters” based on a probable cause finding that the vessel and its cargo were subject to forfeiture under U.S. law. The Coast Guard executed the warrant on Dec. 10. The assertion that States may enforce domestic law aboard Stateless vessels in international waters is not universally accepted, with some States rejecting it altogether and others restricting what actions may be taken (e.g., limiting to situations in which there is a treaty basis for seizure, or for universal jurisdiction offenses, like war crimes). Note, in the context of counternarcotics operations, the United States has for decades seized Stateless vessels on the high seas, both unilaterally and in cooperation with other States.
We thank Rear Admiral, United States Coast Guard (retired) William D. Baumgartner, former Judge Advocate General (TJAG) and former Commander, Seventh (now Southeast) District, for contributing significantly to the following Q & A.
26. How does the United States normally handle drug smugglers?
As a Coast Guard-led law enforcement operation. The United States has a special statute explicitly designed to address international drug smuggling by water, the Maritime Drug Law Enforcement Act (MDLEA). It is carefully tailored and has been adapted over four decades to provide for U.S. jurisdiction over a wide range of non-U.S. vessels found outside U.S. waters. Special provisions allow for U.S. prosecution for certain drug-related crimes with the cooperation of other nations or when no nation claims the smuggling vessel. Under the MDLEA, the U.S. Coast Guard works closely with other agencies, using forces from the U.S. Navy and other nations in a support capacity, to seize smugglers in the Caribbean and Pacific (down to South America). The Coast Guard also has special helicopters (HITRON) with gunners specially trained to shoot out the engines of drug smuggling boats and stop high-speed vessels. HITRON has stopped over 1,000 smuggling vessels in the last 25 years. During fiscal year 2025, ending on September 30, the Coast Guard intercepted over 500,000 pounds of cocaine – a record amount – with no deaths.
27. What happens to the boat crews?
Since the 1980s, crews seized by the Coast Guard have been prosecuted under the MDLEA and leveraged for intelligence on future smuggling operations. However, on Feb. 5, 2025, the Department of Justice announced that they would no longer prosecute boat crews seized under the MDLEA. Instead, those crews were to be returned to their home countries without being prosecuted or interrogated for intelligence purposes.
28. What international law applies to drug smuggling?
Drug smuggling is regarded as a law enforcement problem. The 1982 United Nations Law of the Sea Convention (UNCLOS), 1958 Convention on the High Seas, and Vienna Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (the United States is a party to the latter two) apply and require cooperation from all States. In addition, the United States has over 30 bilateral agreements with other nations to make most drug smuggling interdictions seamless, regardless of the State or the location of the suspect boat.
29. How does drug smuggling compare to piracy?
Piracy and drug smuggling are distinct crimes, but international law treats both as law enforcement problems. Under UNCLOS and other treaties, piracy is a universal crime, and any State can stop, board, and seize pirates and their vessels. Under UNCLOS Art. 101, piracy is defined as acts of violence, detention, or depredation by the crew of one vessel directed against the passengers or crew of another ship. That definition clearly does not apply to the drug smuggling vessels currently being targeted. Even if it did, UNCLOS Art. 105 specifically calls for the “courts of the State” seizing and arresting pirates to determine the penalties for the offense. In 2011, a Somali pirate arrested for the attack on the M/V MAERSK ALABAMA was tried in U.S. courts and remains in a U.S. prison today.
30. Can force be used during law enforcement operations?
Yes, subject to a strict requirement of necessity when no alternatives are available. Force can be, and is, used in law enforcement operations against both drug smugglers and pirates. For non-lethal force, only the force necessary to compel compliance is authorized. This routinely includes warning shots across the bow of the suspect vessel and may include disabling fire intended to shoot out engines, steering gear, or control mechanisms as necessary to stop a fleeing vessel. Of course, deadly force aimed at individuals can be used if they open fire or otherwise present an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.
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